Pharmacy MCQ Questions - Set 5.
1. Which one of the following classes of drugs caused side effects like dryness of mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, blurring of vision, precipitation of glaucoma, drowsiness and impairment of cognition?
A. Anti-adrenergic.
B. Anti-cholinergic.
C. Anti-serotonergic.
D. Anti-dopaminergic.
2. Which of the following cytokines are the most important regulators in inflammation and are the targets for anti-inflammatory agents used in rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Tumor necrosis factor-a and Interleukin-1.
B. Acetylcholine esterase and Eicosanoids.
C. Leukotrienes and Isoprostanes.
D. Adhesion factor and Monoamine oxidase A.
3. Which one of the followings is a FALSE statement for competitive antagonists?
A. They have an affinity for the agonist binding site on the receptor.
B. They have no intrinsic activity.
C. They cause a parallel rightward shift of the control dose-response curve.
D. The maximum response of the agonist cannot be achieved in their presence by increasing the concentration of the agonist.
4. Atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical antipsychotics in various ways that define them as atypical. Which one of the followings is NOT a defining property of the atypical antipsychotics?
A. Sustained hyperprolactinemia.
B. Improved efficacy in treating the negative symptoms.
C. Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects (EPSs).
D. Greater serotonin receptor blockade than dopamine blockade.
5. Which one of the following drugs produces significant relaxation of both venules and arterioles?
A. Hydralazine.
B. Minoxidil.
C. Diazoxide.
D. Sodium nitroprusside.
6. Antiviral action of purine analogues is primarily related to the followings:
[P]: Inhibition of RNA synthesis [Q]: Inhibition of DNA polymerase
[R]: Immunomodulation [S]: Inhibition of viral penetration.
Choose the correct option:
A. R is correct & Q is incorrect.
B. Q is correct & S is incorrect.
C. P is correct & R is incorrect.
D. S is correct & P is incorrect.
7. All of the given four drugs are sympathomimetics:
[P]: Adrenaline [Q]: Isoprenaline
[R]: Phenylephrine [S]: Noradrenaline
Choose the correct statement related to their effects on blood pressure.
A. P and Q increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
B. Q and R increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
C. R and S increase systolic blood pressure.
D. P and S increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
8. One of the followings is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor indicated for a variety of malignancies?
A. Imatinib.
B. Paclitaxel.
C. Ezetimibe.
D. Mitomycin.
9. All of the given four drugs are neuromuscular blocking agents.
[P]: Gallamine [Q]: Succinylcholine.
[Q]: Vecuronium [S]: d-Tubocurarine.
Choose the correct statement about them.
A. P and Q are "competitive neuromuscular blocking agents".
B. Q and R are "competitive neuromuscular blocking agents".
C. R and S are "non-competitive neuromuscular blocking agents".
D. P and S are "competitive neuromuscular blocking agents".
10. Which one of the followings is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy when detected in urine?
A. Estrogens.
B. Progesterone.
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG).
D. Corticotropic Hormone.
11. Followings are some opioid analgesics:
[P]: Morphine [Q]: Pethidine.
[R]: Pentazocine [S]: Fentanyl.
Choose the correct order of respiratory depressant propensity of these agents.
A. P>Q>R>S.
B. Q>P>R>S.
C. R>P>Q>S.
D. S>P>Q>R.
12. Corticosteroids are administered to treat some of the given disease states:
[P]: Peptic ulcer [Q]: Bronchial asthma.
[R]: Nephrotic syndrome [S]: Myasthenia gravis.
Choose the correct statement about the use of corticosteroids for the treatment of these diseases.
A. P, Q and S are treated while R is NOT.
B. P, R and S are treated while Q is NOT.
C. Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT.
D. P, Q and R are treated while S is NOT.
13. Which one of the following statements is FALSE for fluoroquinolones?
A. These are highly effective by oral and parenteral routes.
B. These are relatively more susceptible to the development of resistance.
C. These are effective against those bacteria that are resistant to p-lactam and aminoglycoside antibiotics.
D. These are bactericidal with broad spectrum of activity.
14. Increased serum levels of which one of the following may be associated with decreased risk of atherosclerosis?
A. VLDL.
B. LDL.
C. HDL.
D. Total Cholesterol.
15. Metformin causes the following actions EXCEPT for the one. Identify that.
A. Reduces hepatic neoglucogenesis.
B. Increases glucose uptake in skeletal muscles.
C. Enhances sensitivity to insulin.
D. Increases HBAIc by 1% to 2%.
2. Tumor necrosis factor-a and Interleukin-1.
3. Maximum response of the agonist cannot be achieved in their presence by increasing the concentration of the agonist.
4. Sustained hyperprolactinemia.
5. Sodium nitroprusside.
6. Q is correct and S is incorrect.
7. R and S increase systolic blood pressure.
8. Imatinib.
9. P and S are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents.
10. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG).
11. S>P>Q>R.
12. Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT.13. These are relatively more susceptible to development of resistance.
14. HDL.
15. Increases HBAIc by 1% to 2%.
A. Anti-adrenergic.
B. Anti-cholinergic.
C. Anti-serotonergic.
D. Anti-dopaminergic.
2. Which of the following cytokines are the most important regulators in inflammation and are the targets for anti-inflammatory agents used in rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Tumor necrosis factor-a and Interleukin-1.
B. Acetylcholine esterase and Eicosanoids.
C. Leukotrienes and Isoprostanes.
D. Adhesion factor and Monoamine oxidase A.
3. Which one of the followings is a FALSE statement for competitive antagonists?
A. They have an affinity for the agonist binding site on the receptor.
B. They have no intrinsic activity.
C. They cause a parallel rightward shift of the control dose-response curve.
D. The maximum response of the agonist cannot be achieved in their presence by increasing the concentration of the agonist.
4. Atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical antipsychotics in various ways that define them as atypical. Which one of the followings is NOT a defining property of the atypical antipsychotics?
A. Sustained hyperprolactinemia.
B. Improved efficacy in treating the negative symptoms.
C. Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects (EPSs).
D. Greater serotonin receptor blockade than dopamine blockade.
5. Which one of the following drugs produces significant relaxation of both venules and arterioles?
A. Hydralazine.
B. Minoxidil.
C. Diazoxide.
D. Sodium nitroprusside.
6. Antiviral action of purine analogues is primarily related to the followings:
[P]: Inhibition of RNA synthesis [Q]: Inhibition of DNA polymerase
[R]: Immunomodulation [S]: Inhibition of viral penetration.
Choose the correct option:
A. R is correct & Q is incorrect.
B. Q is correct & S is incorrect.
C. P is correct & R is incorrect.
D. S is correct & P is incorrect.
7. All of the given four drugs are sympathomimetics:
[P]: Adrenaline [Q]: Isoprenaline
[R]: Phenylephrine [S]: Noradrenaline
Choose the correct statement related to their effects on blood pressure.
A. P and Q increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
B. Q and R increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
C. R and S increase systolic blood pressure.
D. P and S increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
8. One of the followings is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor indicated for a variety of malignancies?
A. Imatinib.
B. Paclitaxel.
C. Ezetimibe.
D. Mitomycin.
9. All of the given four drugs are neuromuscular blocking agents.
[P]: Gallamine [Q]: Succinylcholine.
[Q]: Vecuronium [S]: d-Tubocurarine.
Choose the correct statement about them.
A. P and Q are "competitive neuromuscular blocking agents".
B. Q and R are "competitive neuromuscular blocking agents".
C. R and S are "non-competitive neuromuscular blocking agents".
D. P and S are "competitive neuromuscular blocking agents".
10. Which one of the followings is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy when detected in urine?
A. Estrogens.
B. Progesterone.
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG).
D. Corticotropic Hormone.
11. Followings are some opioid analgesics:
[P]: Morphine [Q]: Pethidine.
[R]: Pentazocine [S]: Fentanyl.
Choose the correct order of respiratory depressant propensity of these agents.
A. P>Q>R>S.
B. Q>P>R>S.
C. R>P>Q>S.
D. S>P>Q>R.
12. Corticosteroids are administered to treat some of the given disease states:
[P]: Peptic ulcer [Q]: Bronchial asthma.
[R]: Nephrotic syndrome [S]: Myasthenia gravis.
Choose the correct statement about the use of corticosteroids for the treatment of these diseases.
A. P, Q and S are treated while R is NOT.
B. P, R and S are treated while Q is NOT.
C. Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT.
D. P, Q and R are treated while S is NOT.
13. Which one of the following statements is FALSE for fluoroquinolones?
A. These are highly effective by oral and parenteral routes.
B. These are relatively more susceptible to the development of resistance.
C. These are effective against those bacteria that are resistant to p-lactam and aminoglycoside antibiotics.
D. These are bactericidal with broad spectrum of activity.
14. Increased serum levels of which one of the following may be associated with decreased risk of atherosclerosis?
A. VLDL.
B. LDL.
C. HDL.
D. Total Cholesterol.
15. Metformin causes the following actions EXCEPT for the one. Identify that.
A. Reduces hepatic neoglucogenesis.
B. Increases glucose uptake in skeletal muscles.
C. Enhances sensitivity to insulin.
D. Increases HBAIc by 1% to 2%.
Answers
1. Anti-cholinergic.2. Tumor necrosis factor-a and Interleukin-1.
3. Maximum response of the agonist cannot be achieved in their presence by increasing the concentration of the agonist.
4. Sustained hyperprolactinemia.
5. Sodium nitroprusside.
6. Q is correct and S is incorrect.
7. R and S increase systolic blood pressure.
8. Imatinib.
9. P and S are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents.
10. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG).
11. S>P>Q>R.
12. Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT.13. These are relatively more susceptible to development of resistance.
14. HDL.
15. Increases HBAIc by 1% to 2%.
